If $\gcd(a,b)=1$, show that $\gcd(a^2-b^2,a^2+b^2) = 1 \text{ or } 2$.
I tried this: $\gcd(a,b) = 1$.
Then, $\gcd(a^2, b^2)=1$.
Now, $a^2+b^2$ is divisible by $2$, and $a^2-b^2$ also divisible by $2$. So $2$ is a gcd of $a^2-b^2$ and $a^2+b^2$.
But what about $2$ or $1$?
Using the fact that $\gcd(p,q) = \gcd(p, q \pm p)$,
$$\gcd(a^2-b^2, a^2+b^2) = \gcd(a^2-b^2, 2a^2)$$
If $a^2-b^2$ is odd, then
$$\gcd(2a^2, a^2-b^2) = \gcd(a^2, a^2-b^2) = \gcd(a^2, -b^2) = \gcd(a, -b) = 1.$$
Otherwise, if $a^2-b^2$ is even, then
$$\gcd(2a^2, a^2-b^2) = 2\gcd(a^2, a^2-b^2) = 2\gcd(a^2, -b^2) = 2\gcd(a, -b) = 2.$$