Hi I am trying to work on a proof question that I took note of because the answer did not come to mind immediately. I also found it was a good question to illustrate something I do not understand very well.
The question asks to prove, or disprove that if the system $AX=0$ has infinite solutions, then so to does the system $AX=B$ for any choice of $B$.
First off, I get confused by "For any choice of $B$". I thought $B$ represented the column of constants? How could you choose any $B$? Is that not implying that $B$ can be $(a,b,c,,,n)$ for any $a,b,c,,n$, in the real numbers?
Anyways, in regards to the proof. I know that if $AX=0$ has infinite solutions, then there must be atleast one parameter, thus $(n-r)\geq 1$ where $n$ is the number of variables and $r$ the rank of the matrix. I am not sure where to go from here.
Hopefully you guys can help me with this and get a better understanding!
Thank you,
Hint. Consider the system $$\begin{align}1x + 0y &= 1,\\1x + 0y &= 2.\end{align}$$