You can read the question above. So I'm really " new in terms of Riemann hypothesis". I have read about the hypothesis in wikipedia. So I know the statement of the Hypothesis : The Riemann Zeta Function has its zeros only at the negative even integers and complex numbers with real part $\frac{1}{2}$. but I dont understand why the statement in the title is an accord for this hypothesis? $q$ is the number of elements in $F$, a finite field.
Thank you for explanation.