If $X$ is a Banach space, and $T:X \to X$ is a bounded linear operator with norm < $1$, then $I-T$ has a bounded inverse defined by $(I-T)^{-1} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty T^n$.
Thinking in terms of a converse, if $T$ is any bounded linear operator defined on $X$, then does the existence of a bounded inverse $S=(I-T)^{-1}$ imply that $S$ can be represented as $S=\sum_{n=0}^\infty T^n$?
No, not even in the finite-dimensional case. If $T$ is a linear map from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to itself with all eigenvalues $>1$ in absolute value, then $I-T$ is invertible, but $\sum T^n$ certainly does not converge.