Let $f:[a,b]\to \Bbb R$ be a measurable function.Then show that
- If $\int _c^d f(x)\text{dx}=0$ for all $a\le c<d\le b$ then $f=0a.e.$
- If $\int _a ^c f(x) \text{dx}$ for all $a\le c\le b$ then $f=0a.e.$
My try:
Let $A^{+}=\{x:f(x)\ge 0\}$ and $A^{-}=\{x:f(x)<0\}$
Let $\phi $ be a simple function such that $\phi\le f$ then $\int _c^d f(x)\text{dx}=0\implies \int _c ^d \phi=0\implies \sum a_im(E_i)=0$ where $E_i=\{x:\phi(x)=a_i\}$
But I don't know how to show that $f=0$ a.e. from here.Please give some hints
Here's a fast answer.
Consider the function defined by \begin{align} \nu(A) = \int_A f\ dx \end{align} which absolutely continuous with respect to the Lebesgue measure $dx$. Observe $\nu([c, d]) = 0$ for all $c, d \in [a, b]$, then by extension we see that $\nu(A)=0$ for all Borel subsets of $[a, b]$. By Radon-Nikodym, there exists a unique measurable $f$ (defined up to a set of Lebesgue measure zero) such that \begin{align} \frac{d\nu}{dx} = f. \end{align} In our case we see that the zero function will define the same measure $\nu$. Hence by the uniqueness we have that $f = 0$ a.e. .