By mean value theorem for integrals, for all $n$ there exists $\xi_n\in [0,1]$ such that: $$\int\limits_0^1\frac{x^n}{1+x}\,\mathrm{d}x=\xi_n^n\,\ln 2.$$ Prove that $\xi_n^n \to 0$ as $n\to +\infty.$
Attempt. It is not hard to see that $\xi_n\in [0,1)$. But how can we be sure that $\xi_n$ is not, for example, $1-\frac{1}{n}$ and therefore $\xi_n^n\to \frac{1}{e}$?
Thanks in advance for the help.
This is equivalent to the problem of showing $$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int_0^1\frac {x^n}{1+x}\;dx = 0$$ Use the compound inequality $$0\leq\int_0^1\frac {x^n}{1+x}\;dx\leq\int_0^1 x^n\;dx =\frac{1}{n+1}$$ and we must have $$0\leq\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int_0^1\frac {x^n}{1+x}\;dx\leq\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1}{n+1} = 0 $$
$$\therefore\;\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int_0^1\frac {x^n}{1+x}\;dx=0=\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\xi_n^n\cdot ln(2) $$ $$\therefore \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\xi_n^n = 0$$