I am trying to prove this and found this may be not true in general.Does anyone have any ideas about the counterexample for this statement?
2026-04-02 09:46:01.1775123161
If it's true for $\textrm{rank}(A)=\textrm{rank}(A^2)$
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$A=\begin{pmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{pmatrix}$