If $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty\ } (a_{n+1}-a_n)=0$ and $(a_{4n})_{n\ge1}$ converges decide whether or not $(a_n)$ converges.
My attempt:
I think it isn't enough to $a_n$ converges.
I know $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty \ }( a_{4n+1}-a_{4n})=0$, and because $(a_{4n+1}−a_{4n})$ is a subsequence of $(a_{n+1}-a_n)$ it also converges to 0, so $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty\ } a_{4n+1}=\lim \limits_{n \to \infty\ } a_{4n} $
But I don't know how how to finish this proof. Could someone give me some hints?
Write $\ell = \lim_{n\to\infty} a_{4n}$. For each $\epsilon > 0$,
Write $N = \max\{N_1, N_2\}$. Then for each $n \geq N$, with $n = 4k+r$ with $r \in \{0,1,2,3\}$,
$$ |a_n - \ell| \leq \left( \sum_{j=r}^{3} |a_{4k+j+1} - a_{4k+j}| \right) + |a_{4(k+1)} - \ell| < \epsilon. $$
Therefore the $\epsilon$-$N$ definition of $a_n \to \ell$ is established and hence $a_n \to \ell$.