If $m$ and $n$ are integers with $\gcd(m,n) = 1$, prove that $\sigma(mn)= \sigma(m)\sigma(n)$. I am thinking about using the formula for $\sigma(p^k)$ where $p$ is prime.
It follows from the geometric series that
$$\sigma(p^k) = 1 + p + p^2 +\cdots+p^k = \frac{p^{k+1}-1}{p-1}$$
Any Help?
Let $D(a)$ is the set of all positive divisors of $a$.
When $\gcd(m,n)=1$, the map $(x,y) \mapsto xy$ defines a bijection $D(m)\times D(n)\to D(mn)$.
Use this bijection when you expand $\sigma(m)\sigma(n)=\big(\sum_{x\in D(m)} x\big)\cdot \big(\sum_{y\in D(n)} y\big)$ to conclude that it is the same as $\sigma(mn)= \sum_{z\in D(mn)}z$.