If $p_i$ is prime then $p_i \Bbb Z \cap p_j \Bbb Z= \emptyset \ \forall i,j \in \Bbb N, i\neq j$. Where $a \Bbb Z=\{x\in \Bbb Z: x=0 \mod a\}$.
I ran into some problem where having this lemma proved would really simplify it, is there any really really simple (to understand) proof of this?
The lemma appears to be false. For example, $p_ip_j \in p_i\mathbb Z \cap p_j\mathbb Z$.
In fact, $p_i\mathbb Z \cap p_j\mathbb Z = p_i p_j \mathbb Z$.