In what follows, let $\sigma(x)$ denote the sum of divisors of the positive integer $x$.
A number of the form $M = 2^{2^m} + 1$ is called a Fermat number. If in addition $M$ is prime, then $M$ is called a Fermat prime.
Here is my question:
If $q$ is a Fermat prime, is $\sigma(q^k)/2$ a square if $k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$?
MY ATTEMPT
Let $q = 2^{2^n} + 1$ be a Fermat prime.
Then $$\frac{\sigma(q^k)}{2} = \frac{\sigma\bigg((2^{2^n} + 1)^k\bigg)}{2} = \frac{(2^{2^n} + 1)^{k+1} - 1}{2^{2^n + 1}}.$$
But the numerator can be rewritten as $$(2^{2^n} + 1)^{k+1} - 1 = \bigg(2^{(k+1){2^n}} + 1 - 1\bigg) + \sum_{i=1}^{k}{\binom{k+1}{i}(2^{2^n})^i} = 2^{(k+1){2^n}} + \sum_{i=1}^{k}{\binom{k+1}{i}(2^{2^n})^i}.$$ And I notice that the denominator $$2^{2^n + 1}$$ is not a square.
Here is where I get stuck.
My hunch is that $\sigma(q^k)/2$ is not a square if $q$ is a Fermat prime, but as you can see, I am very far away from proving/showing my conjecture.
I am guessing I could do with $$\nu_{2}((2^{2^n} + 1)^{k+1} - 1) = \nu_{2}(2^{(k+1){2^n}} + \sum_{i=1}^{k}{\binom{k+1}{i}(2^{2^n})^i}) \equiv 0 \pmod{2}$$ and $$\nu_{2}(2^{2^n + 1}) \equiv 1 \pmod{2},$$ but I am unsure if this is the correct way to approach this problem.
The case of n = 1 and k = 1 seems to provide a counterexample. The relevant quotient is equal to (1 + 5)/2 = 3, which is not a perfect square.