Good afternoon everyone.
I am in a numerical linear algebra class, and have come across this problem:
Prove that for $V$ a subspace of $\mathbb{C}^m$, $P$ the orthogonal projector onto $V$, and $Q=I-2P$,
$Q=Q^*$ ($Q$ is hermitian) and $Q^*Q=QQ^*=I$ ($Q$ is unitary)
and conversely,
Prove that
$\forall Q \in \mathbb{C}^{m\times m}. ((Q=Q^*)\land (Q^*Q=I) \implies \exists P \in \mathbb{C}^{m\times m}. (P=P^*) \land (Q=I-2P))$
or in other words
If $Q$ is both hermitian and unitary then $Q=I-2P$ for some orthogonal projector $P$.
I have succeeded in proving the first part of the problem by using some properties of the conjugate transpose (namely $(A+B)^*=A^*+B^*$) and some simple algebra, but the second one puzzles me. My paper literally just looks like this right now:
- $Q=Q^*$, $Q^*Q=I$
$Q^2=I$
And I'm stuck. Do I proceed by supposing a projection onto $V$? Do I somehow prove that $P$ is an orthogonal projector?
Thanks much.
$Q^\dagger = Q; \tag 1$
$Q^\dagger = Q^{-1}; \tag 2$
$Q = Q^\dagger = Q^{-1} \Longrightarrow Q^2 = I; \tag 3$
set
$P = \dfrac{1}{2}(I - Q); \tag 4$
then
$P^2 = \dfrac{1}{4}(I - Q)^2$ $= \dfrac{1}{4}(I - 2Q + Q^2) = \dfrac{1}{4}(2 - 2Q) = \dfrac{1}{2}(I - Q) = P, \tag 5$
showing that $P$ is a projection; also,
$P^\dagger = \dfrac{1}{2}(I - Q)^\dagger = \dfrac{1}{2}(I^\dagger - Q^\dagger) = \dfrac{1}{2}(I - Q) = P; \tag 6$
$P$ is thus hermitian, hence for
$Py = 0, \; z = Pw, \tag 7$
$\langle y, z \rangle = \langle y, Pw \rangle = \langle P^\dagger y, w \rangle = \langle Py, w \rangle = \langle 0, w \rangle = 0, \tag 8$
showing that $\ker P$ and $\text{range}(P)$ are orthogonal, which is the definition of orthogonal projection.
Finally, we note that (4) implies
$Q = I - 2P. \tag{9}$