(True/False) If $S$ is a non-empty subset of $\mathbb{N}$, then there exists an element $m \in S$ such that $m\ge k$ for all $k \in S$.
So my reasoning is that the above statement is false. Since $S$ is a non-empty subset of $\mathbb{N}$, it may also be the case that $S=\mathbb{N}$, and so there may not be an $m \in S$ such that $m \ge k$ for all $k \in S$. I wanted to know if I'm on the right track, and if not, if someone could provide a hint.
You are correct. You found a counterexample. Every nonempty subset S has an m such that m≤k for all k in S (a minimum but not necessarily a maximum.)