If $S$ is an affine independent subset of $R^n$ and $x \notin$ the affine span of $S$ then $S \cup \{x\}$ is affine independent.
I start by letting $S=\{a_0, \dots, a_m\}$ and therefore for by the definition of linear independence: $$(\forall \{t_i\})[\sum_{i=1}^m t_i(a_i-a_0)=0 \Rightarrow t_i = 0, \forall i]$$ So then I need to show that $S \cup \{x\} = \{a_0, \dots , a_n, x\}$ is affine independent, or $$(\forall \{j_i\})[\sum_{i=1}^m j_i(a_i-a_0) + j_x(x-a_0)=0 \Rightarrow j_i = 0, \forall i]$$
But I'm a little confused as to how I'd continue from here after letting $\{j_i\}$ be arbitrary and assuming that $\sum_{i=1}^m j_i(a_i-a_0) + j_x(x-a_0)=0$.
Anyone have any ideas?
Starting from
$ \sum_{i=1}^m j_i(a_i-a_0) + j_x(x-a_0)=0 $, you could write $ \sum_{i=1}^m j_i(a_i-a_0) = - j_x(x-a_0) $
Now, the left-side term is a combination of elements in $S$ and therefore is an element of $span(S)$. But, $x$ being not in $span(S)$, the right-hand term is not in $span(S)$ unless $j_x = 0$. Given that the two terms are equal, they should both belong to the same vector spaces; in particular, they should belong to $span(S)$.
Hence, the right hand term is $0$, and you can conclude that all $j_i$ are $0$ from here.