Given a continuous function $f$ such that $\int f(x)\phi''(x) =0 $ for all $\phi$ $\epsilon$ $D(R).$
Then what can we say about $f$? The problem is straightforward if $f$ $\epsilon$ $C^2$ Kindly provide an answer with a proof.
Given a continuous function $f$ such that $\int f(x)\phi''(x) =0 $ for all $\phi$ $\epsilon$ $D(R).$
Then what can we say about $f$? The problem is straightforward if $f$ $\epsilon$ $C^2$ Kindly provide an answer with a proof.
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