If $T\frac{d}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx}T$ is it true that $T\tau_h = \tau_hT$? And viceversa?

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Let $\mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R})$ be the Schwartz-space, I define on it the two operators

$$\tau_h(f)(x) := f(x-h)$$ $$Df(x) := f'(x)$$

Now let $T : \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}) \to \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R})$ be an operator that commutes with $D$, is it true that $T$ commutes with $\tau_h$ for all $h$?

The heuristic idea behind this is the following

$$\tau_h(f)(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{D^kf(x)\frac{h^k}{k!}}$$

So that If I apply $T$ both sides and commuting $T$ with $D^k$ I get

$$T\tau_hf = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{TD^kf\frac{h^k}{k!}} = \bigg[\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{\frac{h^k}{k!}D^k}\bigg]Tf = \tau_hTf$$

Of course the problem is that is not true in general that $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{D^kf(x)\frac{h^k}{k!}} = f(x+h)$.

Actually the converse implication is really easy, just let $h \to 0$ in the equality

$$T(\frac{1}{h}(f - \tau_hf)) = \frac{1}{h}(Tf - \tau_hTf)$$