If T is a Consistent estimator of $\theta$ then $T^3$ is a consistent estimator of $\theta^3$.
Can anyone tell me in a single line what's the logic behind this? I am familiar with invariance property of MLE where $T$ is MLE of $\theta$ and $T^2$ will be MLE of $\theta ^2$ and we know that all MLE's are consistent. If there is some other logic please do tell me I might ve skipped that portion. I want to study that.