Is this always true? Is there an example of a non-linear transformation such that its inverse is well-defined? Thanks.
2026-03-28 04:50:46.1774673446
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If $T: \mathcal{V}\to\mathcal{W}$ is a transformation, and $T^{-1}$ exists, then $T$ is linear
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No, absolutely not.
If $T^{-1}$ exists, it just means that $T$ is a bijection, which means that for every $y\in \mathcal W$, there is a unique $x\in \mathcal V$ such that
$$T(x)=y.$$
Or if you prefer, it is equivalent to the fact that there exist
$$U\colon \mathcal W\to\mathcal V$$
such that
$$T\circ U=\mathrm{id} \text{ and } U\circ T=\mathrm{id}.$$
If you want a counterexample, take
$$x\mapsto x^3$$
from $\mathbb R$ to $\mathbb R$, or
$$x\mapsto e^x$$
from $\mathbb R$ to $\mathbb R_+^*$.
What about $T:{\bf{R}}\rightarrow{\bf{R}}$, $T:x\rightarrow x+1$, then $T^{-1}:x\rightarrow x-1$.