I'm having a hard time trying to figure if a given statement is true or not:
If $f$ is defined in a neighborhood of $x_0$ and $\lim_{x\to x_0}f'(x)$ exists, then $f$ is differentiable at $x_0$.
Does this always hold, or is there a counter example?
Thanks.
No, consider $f(x) = x$ for all $x\neq 0$ and $f(0)=1$. Then, the $f(x)$ is defined for all $x$, $\lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0} f'(x) = 1$, but $f$ is not continuous at $x=0$ and thus cannot be differentiable.