If $p:\tilde{X}\rightarrow X$ is a covering projection then I know that for every point $x \in X$ the fibre above $x$, i.e $p^{-1}(x)$, has the discrete topology. Here $p$ being a covering map means that it is a continuous, surjective, and every $x \in X$ has a neighborhood $U$ such that $p^{-1}(U)$ is homeomorphic to a disjoint union of copies of $U$, each of which mapped homeomorphically to $U$ through $p$.
Is the converse true? I.e, if $\forall x\in X$ if $p^{-1}(x)$ has the discrete topology and p is also a quotient map then is it true that $p$ is a covering projection? Or is there a counter example for the same?
I am not sure how to proceed in either direction. Hints will be appreciated.
Thanks!
No, that's not true. Consider $p : \mathbb R \to [0, +\infty)$, $x \mapsto x^2$. Every fiber is a finite discrete set, and it is a quotient map: it's surjective, continuous, and $U \subset [0, +\infty)$ is open iff its preimage is open:
But this isn't a covering map, because otherwise the fiber would have constant cardinality, which isn't the case.
It's really necessary to have the condition that the fiber "stays the same over a neighborhood" (and varies continuously), and this is precisely what the definition of a covering map encodes.