Consider two sequences $\{b_n\}_{n\in \mathbb{N}}$ and $\{a_n\}_{n\in \mathbb{N}}$. Suppose that $$ (*) \hspace{1cm} \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} (b_n+a_n)=L<\infty $$
Does this imply $$ \exists \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} b_n \text{ and it is finite} $$ $$ \exists \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} a_n \text{ and it is finite} $$ so that (*) is equivalent to $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}b_n=-\lim_{n\rightarrow i\infty} a_n+L $$ ?
No. E.g let $a_n=n$ and $b_n=-n$.