If the matrix C is the result of the multiplication of matrices A and B, and if is C symmetric matrix, then the matrices A and B can be diagonalized.
Is this statement always correct? If so, why?
If the matrix C is the result of the multiplication of matrices A and B, and if is C symmetric matrix, then the matrices A and B can be diagonalized.
Is this statement always correct? If so, why?
Let $$ A=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \cr 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix},\quad B=A^{-1}. $$ Then $C=I$ is symmetric, but $A$ and $B$ are not diagionalizable.