The answer is $F(x)=1-(1-p)^{x}$ I don't understand how this might be achieved without Integration.
Is it possible for this question to be answered without Integration?
Thanks.
The answer is $F(x)=1-(1-p)^{x}$ I don't understand how this might be achieved without Integration.
Is it possible for this question to be answered without Integration?
Thanks.
We know that $F(x) = P(X \leq x) = P(X=x) + P(X=x-1) + ...P(X=1) = \sum_{i=1}^x P(X=i)$.
Therefore
\begin{align*} F(x) &= \sum_{i=1}^x P(X=i) \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^x p(1-p)^{i-1} \\ &= p \cdot \sum_{i=1}^x (1-p)^{i-1} \\ &= p \cdot \frac{1-(1-p)^{x}}{1-(1-p)} = 1-(1-p)^x \end{align*}