It is a basic fact that when two idempotents $e,f$ in a semigroup $S$ commute, then $ef$ is an idempotent. Is the converse true? Is it true for idempotents in rings?
2026-03-29 03:36:54.1774755414
If the product of two idempotents is idempotent, must the two idempotents commute?
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No. In $M_2(\mathbb{C})$, let $$ e=\begin{bmatrix}1&0\\ 0&0\end{bmatrix}, \ \ f=\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\ 0&0\end{bmatrix}. $$ So $$ e^2=e, \ \ f^2=f, \ \ ef=f, \ \ fe=e. $$