(i) If the series $ \ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^2 \ $ converges , then the $ \ n^{th } \ $ term $ \ a_n^2 \ \to 0 \ \ as \ \ n \to \infty $.
then show that $ \ a_n \to 0 \ \ as \ \ n \to \infty \ $
(ii) If the series $ \ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^3 \ $ converges , then the $ \ n^{th } \ $ term $ \ a_n^3 \ \to 0 \ \ as \ \ n \to \infty $.
then show that $ \ a_n \to 0 \ \ as \ \ n \to \infty \ $
Answer:
(i)
I am thinking this holds trivially. Because $ \ a_n^2 \to 0 \ \Rightarrow a_n \to 0 \ $
But I can not prove it mathematically.
I need clear explanation .
help me
Let $\epsilon>0$ be given. Then $\epsilon^k>0$. Hence $a_n^k\to 0$ tells us that there exists $N$ such that $|a_n^k|<\epsilon^k$ for all $n>N$. Then for such $n$, we also have $|a_n|<\epsilon$ (because $x\ge y>0$ implies $x^k\ge y^k$, and of course $|x^k|=|x|^k$).
We conclude that $a_n\to 0$.