If the set $B=\{f(x) : x\in A\}$ has supremum and $C=\{k+f(x): x\in A\}$, then what is $\sup C$?
Since $C$ is not an empty set and $f(x)\le \sup(B) ⇒ k+f(x)\le k+\sup(B)$. So $C$ is bounded above. Thus, $\sup(C)\le k+\sup(B)$ If $\sup(C)\ge k+\sup(B)$ is true, I can conclude $\sup(C)=k+\sup(B)$. But I don't know how to show $\sup(C)\ge k+\sup(B)$.