My Professor gives us a homework that contains this question:
Let $U$ and $V$ be a vector spaces on a field $F$, and let $T:U \to V$ be a linear transformation on $F$.
If $\{ u_1,...,u_n\}$ is a linearly independent of $U$, show that $\{ T(u_1), ..., T(u_n)\}$ is linearly independent.
Is that true? I took $T:\mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}$, such that $T((x,y))=0$ for all $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2$
Then I found that $\{ (1,0),(0,1)\}$ is linearly independent in $ \mathbb{R}^2$, but $\{T(1,0)=0,T(0,1)=0\}$ is not linearly independent in $\mathbb{R}$ ?
What do you think?
Your example is a valid counterexample to the claim. So, this is not true without additional hypotheses on the linear transformation $T$. If you assume, for instance, that $T$ is injective, then the claim is indeed true. Or, as @ThomasAndrews says in the comments under the question, perhaps you meant to claim that if $T(u_1),\dots,T(u_n)$ are linearly independent, then $u_1,\dots,u_n$ are linearly independent.
Additionally, a small note on terminology: it is preferable to say that $\{ u_1,\dots,u_n \}$ is a linearly independent subset of $U$, and that $\{ T(1,0), T(0,1) \}$ is not linearly independent over $\mathbb{R}$.