If v1 + w, v2 + w,..., vn + w are linearly dependant, prove w belongs to the span of v1, v2,...,vn
I'm told that this proof is correct, but I believe it is not. I believe it is false because:
If v1 = v2 = ... = vn = 0:
v1 + w, v2 + w,..., vn + w simplifies to w, w,..., w which is linearly dependant, so the first condition is still satisfied.
In this case span(v1, v2, vn) is the 0 vector. Therefore w will only belong to the span of v1, v2, vn if w = 0.
Therefore the proof does not hold true for when v1 = v2 = ... = vn = 0, w != 0
Am I correct in believing the proof is incorrect? Or is it actually correct as I am told it is.
You are right, the assertion as you've written it is not true, and you have found a counterexample. I'm not sure what proof you are looking at, but if the proof claims that $w$ is some kind of linear combination of the $v_i$'s, it should check that there's no division by zero when working out the coefficients of that claimed linear combination.