I have a feeling it should because it seems very close to if $$x \equiv 1 \mod 3 \ \ \text{and}\ \ x \equiv 1 \mod 6$$
since anything that is divisible by $6$ is also divisible by $3$.
But what is throwing me off here is the $-2$.
If I use the identities I get $x-1=3t$ for some integer $t$ and the other $x+2=6n$ for some integer $n$ and then I would get $x=3t+1$ and $x=6n-2$.
This is not true. $$7 \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$$
but
$$7 \not\equiv -2 \pmod{6}$$
What you can say, however, is that if $x \equiv 1 \pmod{3}$, then exactly one of these two statements is true (remember that $-2$ is the same as $4$, modulo $6$).
$$x \equiv 1 \pmod{6}$$
$$x \equiv -2 \pmod{6}$$