(Question 15.3 in Humphreys's book Introduction to Lie Algebras) Let $L$ be semisimple (char $\mathbb F = 0$), $x\in L$ semisimple. Prove that if $x$ lies in exactly one CSA (Cartan subalgebra), then $x$ is regular.
Definitions. An element $x$ is said regular if $C_L(x) = \{y\in L: [y,x] = 0\}$ is a maximal toral subalgebra. In particular, when $L$ is semisimple, being maximal toral is equivalent to being a CSA which is equivalent to being a minimal Engel subalgebra. An Engel subalgebra is one of the form $L_0(\mbox{ad }x) = \{y \in L: (\mbox{ad }x)^ky =0 \mbox{ for some integer } k \}, x\in L$.
Remark. This question have been asked here Cartan Subalgebra and regular elements and here $x$ regular $\Leftrightarrow$ $x$ is in exactly one CSA. Both of them lack of an answer. Moreover, the suggestion given in the latter is in my opinion wrong, since taking "$y\in C_L(x)\setminus H$ such that $L_0(\mbox{ad }y)$ is minimal" (I'm assuming he meant minimal among all the $y\in C_L(x)\setminus H$) does not ensure that it is minimal among all Engel subalgebras. I've tried to work a little bit more with this argument as follows. Of course, if $L_0(\mbox{ad }y)$ is not minimal, it will contain a minimal Engel subalgebra, say $L_0(\mbox{ad }z)$ ($L$ has finite dimension). But I can't see how to argue that $x\in L_0(\mbox{ad } z)$ to obtain the absurd of $x$ lying both in $H$ and $L_0(\mbox{ad } z)$.
Some ideas. Suppose $x$ is not regular. On one hand, being semisimple implies that $C_L(x) = L_0(\mbox{ad } x)$. Furthermore, there exists a maximal toral $H\subseteq C_L(x),$ where $H$ is the subalgebra spanned by the semisimple elements of $L$. Since $H = C_L(H)$, it follows that $x\in H$. On the other hand, $x$ being irregular implies that $L_0(\mbox{ad }x) = C_L(x)$ is not miminal, so let us take $L_0(\mbox{ad }y)\subseteq C_L(x)$ properly and minimal. In particular, $y\in C_L(x)$ gives us that $x\in L_0(\mbox{ad }y).$ Both $H$ and $L_0(\mbox{ad }y)$ are CSA, so it remains to prove that they are not the same to obtain a contradiction. $H$ and $L_0(\mbox{ad }y)$ are too generic, I can't see a way to argue that. I'm stuck and out of ideas.
Any insight or help is very much appreciated.
Say $x\in\mathfrak{a}$ is the Cartan subalgebra. Note that we can decompose $L=L_0\oplus\bigoplus_{\lambda\in\Omega}L_\lambda$ for some finite set $\Omega\subseteq\mathfrak{a}^*$ that does not contain $0$ ($L_\lambda$ are the eigenspaces of the pairwise commuting operators $ad(h), h\in\mathfrak{a}$). But, $L_0=\mathfrak{a}$ since Cartan subalgebras are self-centralizing (I think this fact is proved in Chapter 8). I claim that $\lambda(x)\neq 0$ for $\lambda\in\Omega$. Indeed, if $\lambda(x)=0$, then $ad(x)$ annihilates $L_\lambda$
so $L_\lambda+\mathbb{F}x$ contains an abelian subalgebra of dimension at least $2$ and contains $x$ (Take an element $y\in L_\lambda$, form $\mathbb{F}x+\mathbb{F}y$).so there exists $0\neq y\in L_\lambda$ such that $ad(x)(y)=\lambda(x)y=0$. Pick $h\in\mathfrak{a}$, $z\in L_{-\lambda}$ such that $y,h,z$ is an $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ triple, i.e. $$ \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1\\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\mapsto y,\quad\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0\\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\mapsto h,\quad\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 0\\ 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\mapsto z $$ is an isomorphism between $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ and $\mathbb{F}y+\mathbb{F}h+\mathbb{F}z$. Note that $y+z$ is semisimple since its preimage in $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ is semisimple. Moreover, $x$ commutes with $y+z$, so $\mathbb{F}x+\mathbb{F}(y+z)$ is abelian and contains semisimple elements. This contradicts the fact that $x$ is contained in a unique Cartan algebra and we deduce that $\lambda(x)\neq 0$.This finishes the proof: $L_\lambda$ are also eigenspaces of $ad(x)$ and we have shown that $\lambda(x)$ is never $0$. Thus, the nullspace of $ad(x)$ is exactly $L_0=\mathfrak{a}.$