Clearly the second polynomial implies $x = 1$, sub this into the first polynomial so that $y = 0$. The only point in the variety is $(1,0) \in k^2$.
The ideal of polynomials vanishing on this point is $\langle x-1, y \rangle$. You can prove that $$I(\{ \, (1,0) \, \} ) = \langle x-1, y \rangle $$ by using the definition of $I$,
Clearly the second polynomial implies $x = 1$, sub this into the first polynomial so that $y = 0$. The only point in the variety is $(1,0) \in k^2$.
The ideal of polynomials vanishing on this point is $\langle x-1, y \rangle$. You can prove that $$I(\{ \, (1,0) \, \} ) = \langle x-1, y \rangle $$ by using the definition of $I$,
$$I(\{ \, (1,0) \, \} ) = \{ \, f(x,y) \in k[x,y] \, | \, f(1,0) = 0 \, \},$$
and showing containment in both directions. One direction is trivial, the other direction is a generalization of the fundamental theorem of algebra.