Would my reasoning below be correct?
$Ax=0$ and $Ay=0$, so $A(ax)=0$ and $B(by)=0$, so $A(ax+by)=0$. Hence $ax+by$ is also in $\ker(A)$.
Would my reasoning below be correct?
$Ax=0$ and $Ay=0$, so $A(ax)=0$ and $B(by)=0$, so $A(ax+by)=0$. Hence $ax+by$ is also in $\ker(A)$.
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
I miss the reasoning for $ A(ax+by)=0$ !
$ A(ax+by)=A(ax)+A(by)=aA(x)+bA(y)=a0+b0=0$.