I was hoping to approach by saying if you mod out the only nontrivial normal subgroup, then the quotient group has no nontrivial normal subgroups. But maybe that's an oversimplification.
Thanks
I was hoping to approach by saying if you mod out the only nontrivial normal subgroup, then the quotient group has no nontrivial normal subgroups. But maybe that's an oversimplification.
Thanks
Let $N$ be a normal subgroup of $G/Z(G)$.
By Correspondence Theorem, $N=H/Z(G)$ where $Z(G)\lhd H \lhd G$.
By hypothesis, $H=Z(G)$ or $H=G$.
Hence $N=\{Z(G)\}$ or $N=G/Z(G)$.
In general,