I need to prove that if $\zeta(1+it_0)=0$ then $|\zeta (\sigma)^3 \zeta (\sigma +it_0)^4 \zeta(\sigma + 2it_0)| \longrightarrow 0$ as $\sigma \longrightarrow 1$, where $\zeta$ is the Riemann Zeta function. I guess I need to show that $\zeta(\sigma+it_0)^4$ approaches $0$ faster than $\zeta (\sigma)^3\zeta (\sigma + 2it)$ approaches $\infty$ when $\sigma \longrightarrow 1$. But don't know how to get around that.
Edit: The purpose of this computation is to show, by contradiction, that $\zeta$ has no zeros at the line $1+it$.
$\zeta(1+it_0)=0$, thus if $n$ denotes the multiplicity of $1+it_0$ as a zero of $\zeta$, there exists $g$ holomorphic such that $\zeta(\sigma+it_0)=(\sigma-1)^ng(\sigma)$ and $g(1)\neq 0$ around $\sigma=1$. We thus have $$ |\zeta(\sigma)^3\zeta(\sigma+it_0)^4\zeta(\sigma+2it_0)|=(\sigma-1)^3\zeta(\sigma)^3|\cdot(\sigma-1)^{4n-3}|g(\sigma)|\cdot|\zeta(\sigma+2it_0)|\underset{\sigma\rightarrow 1^+}{\longrightarrow}0 $$ because $\lim\limits_{\sigma\rightarrow 1^+}(\sigma-1)^3\zeta(\sigma)^3=1$ and $4n-3\geqslant 1$. (Which btw leads to a contradiction since $|\zeta(\sigma)^3\zeta(\sigma+it_0)^4\zeta(\sigma+2it_0)|\geqslant 1$ for all $\sigma>1$)