the question is:
let $$a_{n} = 1$$ and $$a_{n+1}=\frac{a_{n}}{1+(n+1)a_{n}}$$ for each natural number n. prove by induction that $$a_{n} = \frac{2}{n(n+1)}$$ for every natural number. and deduce that $$a_{n}\rightarrow 0.$$I have shown that when n = 1 the theorem is true, and assumed that it is also true for n = k
and when i try prove the case for n=k+1 I get: $$a_{k+1}=\frac{\frac{2}{k(k+1)}}{1+(k+1)\frac{2}{k(k+1)}}$$
its at this point that I'm getting stuck.
do i need to try and manipulate the equation to get:$$a_{k+1}=\frac{2}{(k+1)(k+2)}?$$
Id appreciate any help, cheers guys.
You're almost there; you've done nearly everything. Your expression is
$$a_{k+1} = \frac{\frac{2}{k(k+1)}}{1+(k+1)\frac{2}{k(k+1)}} = \frac{\frac{2}{k(k+1)}}{1+\frac{2}{k}} = \frac{2}{k(k+1)+2(k+1)} = \frac{2}{(k+2)(k+1)}$$
as desired.