If $A$ is a matrix and $V=U_1\oplus U_2$ (finite dimensional). Then in general it's not true that $AV=AU_1\oplus AU_2$, because for example for $U_1=(\mathbb{R},0)^T, U_2=(0,\mathbb{R})^T$ and $$A=\begin{pmatrix}1&1\\1&1\end{pmatrix},$$ it holds that $AU_1=AU_2$ so obviously $AU_1\cap AU_2\neq\{0\}$. But what if $A$ is invertible on $V$? Is there any condition under which the statement is true?
Maybe a more direct question for what I want to do: I have two vectors $u_1\in U_1$ and $u_2\in U_2$ where $U_1\cap U_2=\{0\}$ such that $V=U_1\oplus U_2$. I want to check if $A$ is injective on $V$. Can I check if $A$ is injective on $U_1$ and $U_2$ separately? Is $\ker A\cap V=(\ker A\cap U_1)\oplus(\ker A\cap U_2)$?
If $A$ is invertible, then it's injective (indeed, bijective). So this might trivialize the problem you're interested in. But yes, if $A$ is invertible then it preserves direct sums in the sense that $V = U_1 \oplus U_2$ gets sent to $AV = AU_1 \oplus A U_2$. To see why,
Altogether, this means that $AV = AU_1 \oplus AU_2$, as desired.
I hope this helps ^_^