I'd always thought it was solved like this:
$$ \frac{d}{dx}(2xy)=0=\frac{d}{dx}(x\cdot2y)= 2y$$ as $\frac{d}{dx}(kx) = k$
However according to multiple online differentiators, the actual answer is:
$$2xy′+ 2y =0$$
-- I realized the product rule - $$\frac{d}{dx}(ab) = a\cdot b′ + a′ \cdot b $$ - gives the results from the websites but why doesn't the rule $$\frac{d}{dx}(kx) = k$$ apply?
Because $y$ depends also of $x$, $y=y(x)$ so you have the product rule.
$x'=1$ and $y(x)'=y'$.
The rule that you said it is only valid if $y(x)$ were constant.