would $\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\ dx=0$ always be true if $f$ is an odd function?
2026-02-23 10:00:08.1771840808
Improper integral of an odd function
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This is true provided the integral is interpreted as Cauchy principal value. Since $f$ is odd, $$\int_{-A}^Af(x)\,dx=0 $$ Hence, $$\mathrm{p.v. }\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)\,dx=\lim_{A\to\infty}\int_{-A}^Af(x)\,dx=0 $$ There's also the implicit assumption that $f$ is integrable in each interval $[-a,a]$. If we are not using principal values, then the improper integral $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)\,dx$ might not exist. For example, when $f(x)=x$, as @Bungo commented.