I am going over improper integrals and I have a question about approaching a certain problem.
The question is the the integral $$\int_1^\infty \frac{\log x}{x}\,dx$$
This integral does not converge, and I am wondering how I go about this.
The most obvious (to me) solution would be to take the limit as $t \to \infty$ of the integral $\int_1^t \frac{\log x}{x}\,dx$
To integrate this expression, the easiest way would be to do $u$-substitution, where $u = \log x$ and $du = (1/x)\,dx$.
The question I have is in regards to switching the bounds to be in terms of $u$. Would the bounds now be $\log(t)$ and $\log(1) = 0$?
You approach is perfectly sound! Indeed, we can write the improper integral of interest as
$$\int_1^{\infty}\frac{\log x}{x}\,dx=\lim_{L\to \infty}\int_1^L\frac{\log x}{x}\,dx$$
And then, we can make a "$u$" substitution with $u=\log x$ and $du=\frac{1}{x}\,dx$. The new limits of integration are $0$ and $\log L$. Therefore, we can write
$$\begin{align} \int_1^{\infty}\frac{\log x}{x}\,dx&=\lim_{L\to \infty}\int_0^{\log L}u\,du\\\\ &=\lim_{L\to \infty}\left.\left(\frac12 u^2\right)\right|_0^{\log L}\\\\ &=\lim_{L\to \infty}\frac 12\log^2 L\\\\ &=\infty \end{align}$$
And we are done!