Can someone explain in detail Sean's proof for this same question in this thread? Specifically I'm confused about the following parts:
1) What does he mean when he says $ " $Suppose $ p $ is a prime dividing $ |b| $ to a higher power than $ |a|?" $
2) He says that we can write $ |a| = p^im $ and $ |b| = p^jn $ where $ j > i $ and $ p $ divides neither $ m $ nor $ n, $ but how can we prove that we can find such a $ p $ with that property?
3) The proof reaches a contradiction at the end, but how does this imply that the initial theorem must be true?
4) This theorem is only true if the group is abelian, but I can't see where he uses this fact in his proof.
(1) He means that $|a|=p^im$ and $|b|=p^jn$ for some $m,n$ coprime to $p$ and $j>i$.
(2) We don't prove that there is such a $p$ with that property, we're assuming it's true for the sake of reaching a contradiction.
(3) If there is no $|b|$ divisible by a higher prime power than $|a|$ is, then $|b|$ must divide $|a|$ (just compare their prime factorizations) for every element $b$.
(4) The lemma is used to say what the order of $a^{p^i}b^n$ is, and the lemma (while not stated) requires that $G$ be abelian.