This is related to my previous question on equality and equivalence relations. In first-order logic without equality with a single binary relation $R$, is the theory of reflexive partial orders the same as the theory of preorders?
2026-04-23 06:35:52.1776926152
In first-order logic without equality, is the theory of partial orders the same as preorders?
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Per a couple of my previous answers (1, 2), there is a standard technique for answering this sort of question. Namely, we have the following (phrased more generally here than in the above-linked answers):
The proof is by a standard induction on formula complexity; note that preserving and reflecting equality amounts to bijectivity, so this does actually match the usual notion of isomorphism if equality is treated as atomic. (The restriction to relational languages is convenient but not truly necessary.)
This lets us prove results about classes of structures. Specifically, say that $\mathfrak{A}$ and $\mathfrak{B}$ are quasi-isomorphic if there is some $R$ with the properties above. Then we have:
In this case, take $\mathbb{K}_1$ to be the class of preorders and $\mathbb{K}_0$ to be the class of partial orders (with "partialization" giving the desired $R$s).