I noticed in various induction proofs, that it uses 2 base cases (e. g: for $n = 1$ and $2$ the problem trivially holds...)
Why is that? Isn't one base case enough for one-step induction?
I noticed in various induction proofs, that it uses 2 base cases (e. g: for $n = 1$ and $2$ the problem trivially holds...)
Why is that? Isn't one base case enough for one-step induction?
On
For example.
Prove that: $$\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{n+3}+\frac{1}{n+5}+...+\frac{1}{3n-1}\geq\frac{1}{2}$$ for any natural $n$.
For the proof by induction we need to check $n=1$ and $n=2$ because we need a transition from $n$ to $n+2$.
I'll write a full proof and I hope it would be clear.
For $n=1$ we need to check: $$\frac{1}{2}\geq\frac{1}{2},$$ which is true.
For $n=2$ we need to check: $$\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}\geq\frac{1}{2}$$ or $$\frac{8}{15}\geq\frac{1}{2},$$ which is true.
Now, it's enough to prove that: $$\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{n+3}+\frac{1}{n+5}+...+\frac{1}{3n-1}\geq\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow$$ $$\Rightarrow\frac{1}{n+3}+\frac{1}{n+5}+...+\frac{1}{3n-1}+\frac{1}{3n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+3}+\frac{1}{3n+5}\geq\frac{1}{2},$$ for which it's enough to proof that: $$\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+3}+\frac{1}{3n+5}\geq\frac{1}{2}$$ or $$\frac{1}{3n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+5}\geq\frac{2}{3(n+1)},$$ which is true by C-S: $$\frac{1}{3n+1}+\frac{1}{3n+5}\geq\frac{(1+1)^2}{3n+1+3n+5}=\frac{2}{3(n+1)}$$ and by induction we are done!
On
Use two base cases when the next case depends on the two previous cases. For example,
the Fibonacci numbers could be defined by $ F_n=F_{n-1}+F_{n-2}$ with $F_1=F_2=1$,
and it can be shown by induction that $F_n=\dfrac{(1+\sqrt5)^n-(1-\sqrt5)^n}{2^n\sqrt5}$,
but we need two cases to start off the induction,
because the $n^{th}$ Fibonacci number is defined in terms of the two previous Fibonacci numbers.
While it's true that one base case is sufficient, it is sometimes more convenient to prove more base cases first.
To be more explicit:
Suppose you only prove $P(n)$ for $n = 1$. In this case, you have to prove that $$P(n) \implies P(n+1) \quad \forall n \ge 1.$$
Suppose you prove $P(n)$ for $n = 1, 2$. In this case, you have to prove that $$P(n) \implies P(n+1) \quad \forall n \ge 2.$$
Depending on $P(n)$, the latter might be easier to do.
To be more illustrative, consider the following stupid example:
Let $P(n)$ be the proposition $``\ a_n \le 1000"$, where $a_n$ is defined as: $$a_1 = 10, a_2 = 100,$$ $$a_{n+1} = a_{n} \quad \forall n \ge 2.$$
Hopefully, you can see why it's better to take two base cases.