Given the definition of ordinal similarity:
✳151.01 $P \overline{smor} Q = \hat{S}\{ S\in 1\rightarrow 1. C‘Q=ConverseD‘S. P=S^;Q\}$ Df.
$Q$ has to be homogeneous, otherwise $C‘Q$ is meaningless. It does not seem to imply that $P$ has to be homogeneous. If $P$ is heterogeneous, $smor$ would be asymmetrical, because $C‘P$ would be meaningless.
✳151.14 says $smor$ is symmetrical. In this case, I think it is presumed that $P$ is homogeneous.
Take $\iota$ for example, given an individual, say Indv, as its first term, then it forms a progression-like relation P:
Indv, {Indv}, {{Indv}}, {{{indv}}}, ...
$P$ does not have a field or a domain because $\iota$ is heterogeneous. If there is a correlator $S$ that converts P's relata to string, then $S^;P$ will be a homogeneous progression in which each term wraps a layer of $\{\}$ around the one immediately precedes itself. The cardinal number of $S^;P$'s field is $\aleph_0$.
If ordinal similarity is limited to homogeneous relations only, then the above procedure is inoperable.
Please let me know what is wrong with my reasoning.
Thanks,