I have been wondering how to prove the following statement, and would greatly appreciate your help:
If $f$ is a bounded function on $E$ that belongs to $L_{p_1}(E)$, then it belongs to $L_{p_2}(E)$ for any $p_2>p_1$.
Thank you in advance.
I have been wondering how to prove the following statement, and would greatly appreciate your help:
If $f$ is a bounded function on $E$ that belongs to $L_{p_1}(E)$, then it belongs to $L_{p_2}(E)$ for any $p_2>p_1$.
Thank you in advance.
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I don't see a way to get this result from Hölder's inequality, but I offer the following
profoundobservation: if $|y|\le M$, then $$|y|^{p_2}\le M^{p_2-p_1}|y|^{p_1}$$ I hope this is sufficient for the OP.