Let $C_{1}$ and $C_{2}$ be polytopes in $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ such that $C_{1}=conv\left( V\right) $ with $V$ being a set of vertices. If $V\subseteq C_{2}$, my question is $C_{1}\subseteq C_{2}$?
2026-02-23 08:31:50.1771835510
Bumbble Comm
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Inclusion of polytopes
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By definition, the convex hull $conv(V)$ is the smallest convex set containing $V$ or equivalently the intersection of all convex sets that contain $V$. Using the latter definition, if $C_2$ is convex, for any $p \in C_1$, we must have $p \in C_2$ since otherwise it wouldn’t have landed in the intersection. Therefore, $C_1 \subseteq C_2$.
As pointed out in the comments, it’s easy to find a counterexample with concave $C_2$, so you need the convexity of $C_2$.
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