In reading another question (Explaining Infinite Sets and The Fault in Our Stars) it got me thinking about the way that you can prove that the number of numbers between 0 and 1 and between 0 and 2 are the same. (apologies if my terminology is a bit woolly and imprecise, hopefully you catch my drift though).
The way it is proved is that you can show that there is a projection of all the numbers on [0,1] to [0,2] and vice versa. I'm good with this.
However I then got to thinking that you can also create a projection that takes all the numbers from [0,1] and maps them to two numbers from [0,2] by saying for a number x it can go to x or x+1. This is reversible to so you can say that you can find a pair of numbers in [0,2] such that they differ by one and the lowest is a member of [0,1].
Why is it that this doesn't prove that there are twice as many numbers in [0,2] than in [0,1]. It seems to me that this is the crux of why it runs counter to intuition but I can't work out the flaw.
Or is it just in the nature of infinity that infinity*2 is still the same infinity and thus its just that infinite is "weird"?
Your last sentence is the best answer to your question possible. Yes, indeed, infinities are "weird" and are not intuitive when you first encounter them.
Any infinite set is, in fact, in effect "twice as big" as itself. For example, even $[0,1]$ contains twice as many elements as $[0,1]$, since you can map $x$ to the pair $(\frac x2, \frac x2 +\frac12)$.