I am looking at the following post from Math Exchange.
In the post guest196883 writes
The rule stated only applies for definite integrals. That is: $$\int_a^b\alpha f\,dx = \alpha \int_a^bf \,dx$$
Does this mean it is NOT true in general for indefinite integrals? That is:
$$\int\alpha f\,dx = \alpha \int f \,dx$$
There was a short discussion in the comments of the post on this but I don't believe it was ever fully addressed. Thank you in advance!