Why to use the expression $\Bbb{1}\{j < m\}$ rather than just $1$? What am I missing?
Best regards
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1810.07770v3.pdf
You missed that their definition of $[m]$ is actually $\{1, \dots, m\}$ which includes $m$ itself.
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You missed that their definition of $[m]$ is actually $\{1, \dots, m\}$ which includes $m$ itself.