Given $(1+x)^{n+1}>1+(n+1)x$ for $x>0$ and for $n$ positive integer.
Putting $n=1$ I get $x^2>0$ so the inductive hypothesis is true.
Putting $n=n+1$ I get $(1+x)^{n+2}>1+(n+2)x$. I can write $(1+x)^{n+2}$ as $(1+x)^n(1+x)^2$ and then I don't know how to go on.
No, write
$$(x+1)^{n+2}=(x+1)^{n+1}(x+1)$$ instead of $$(x+1)^{n+2}=(x+1)^n(x+1)^2.$$
Then you can use the induction hypothesis and
$$(x+1)^{n+1}(x+1)>(1+(n+1)x)(1+x)=1+(n+2)x+x^2>1+(n+2)x.$$
In fact it is easier to start with the equivalent statement
$$(x+1)^n>1+nx$$ for $n>1$.
Then
$$(x+1)^{n+1}>(1+nx)(x+1)>1+(n+1)x$$