Let $B = B(x_0,R) \subset \subset \Omega$ a ball in $R^n$ with $\Omega $ a domain in $R^n$ with smooth boundary and consider two functions $u,v \in W^{1,p}(\Omega) $ $(1<p \leq 2).$ From general theory we have the inequality
$$ C_1\int_B (|\nabla u| + |\nabla v|)^{p-2} |\nabla u- \nabla v|^2 \leq \int_B |\nabla u|^p - |\nabla v|^p, \ \ \ C_1 = C_1 (n,p) \ \ \ (1).$$
Suppose that
$$\int_B |\nabla u|^p - |\nabla v|^p \leq C_2(n,p)R^n \ \ \ (2) $$
The author of the paper that I am reading says that it is possible to conclude that
$$ \int_B |V(\nabla u) - V(\nabla v)|^2 \leq C_3(n,p)R^n, (*)$$
where $V(\xi) = |\xi|^{\frac{p-2}{2}}\xi, \xi \in R^n,$ from the inequality
$K^{-1} (|\xi|^2 + |\eta|^2)^{\frac{p-2}{2}} |\xi - \eta|^2 \leq |V(\xi) - V(\eta)|^2 \leq K(|\xi|^2 + |\eta|^2)^{\frac{p-2}{2}} |\xi - \eta|^2 , K=K(n,p) \ \ (3),$ where $\xi , \eta \in R^n - \{ 0 \}$
I am not seeing how to obtain $(*)$ from (1) , (2) and (3). With my computations I am getting anywhere. Someone could help me ?
Thanks in advance
Using (3) in the form $$ |V(\xi) - V(\eta)|^2 \leq K(|\xi|^2 + |\eta|^2)^{\frac{p-2}{2}} |\xi - \eta|^2 \le K (|\xi| + |\eta|)^{p-2} |\xi - \eta|^2 $$ we get from (1) $$ \int_B |V(\nabla u) - V(\nabla v)|^2 \le K \int_B (|\nabla u| + |\nabla v|)^{p-2} |\nabla u- \nabla v|^2 \leq \int_B |\nabla u|^p - |\nabla v|^p$$ and an application of (2) yields the claim.